Ace42X
04-19-2006, 05:25 PM
I was jsut watching one of channel 4's "The darker side of porn" programs, and a question popped into my head, partly due to the "casual sex" thread.
A lot of the people who have (traditionally) been actors in porn films have come from a background where they have been abused, it is almost a cliché that people who have been abused often end up as being hyper-sexualised, and often into "deviant" acts.
Now, we're all about free love here I am sure, and if people want to do kinky stuff, good for them. I am sure Peachy will chime in at this point and say she is all about people getting their kinky boundary-pushing thing on.
BUT, at what point does it become exploitation? If a deviancy is the product of abuse, would it be unethical for someone to promote it.
For example, if a chick was really into anal, due to personal complexes, would a guy who was keen on anal be morally wrong for enabling behaviour which might come around from self-loathing, rather than a "genuine" affinity for the act?
I mean, we aren't all qualified psychologists, so what expectations are upon a guy to figure this sort of thing out?
The crux of the question is: If someone, being over the age of consent and not completely off their rocker, has a long term sexual deviancy originating from a traumatic past - does time somehow... Disolve the 'illness' of this, and by a process of ageing it make it a "legitimate" deviancy?
A lot of the people who have (traditionally) been actors in porn films have come from a background where they have been abused, it is almost a cliché that people who have been abused often end up as being hyper-sexualised, and often into "deviant" acts.
Now, we're all about free love here I am sure, and if people want to do kinky stuff, good for them. I am sure Peachy will chime in at this point and say she is all about people getting their kinky boundary-pushing thing on.
BUT, at what point does it become exploitation? If a deviancy is the product of abuse, would it be unethical for someone to promote it.
For example, if a chick was really into anal, due to personal complexes, would a guy who was keen on anal be morally wrong for enabling behaviour which might come around from self-loathing, rather than a "genuine" affinity for the act?
I mean, we aren't all qualified psychologists, so what expectations are upon a guy to figure this sort of thing out?
The crux of the question is: If someone, being over the age of consent and not completely off their rocker, has a long term sexual deviancy originating from a traumatic past - does time somehow... Disolve the 'illness' of this, and by a process of ageing it make it a "legitimate" deviancy?